Hi all,

      After a two year courtship I married a Filipina in the Philippines in 
April 2008.

All was well the wedding and honeymoon very good.

When I left to return to the UK the next day she disappeared after the 
marriage I later found she had changed her phone number I had no contact 
with her for six weeks despite my texting and emailing I received no rely.

She contacted me after six weeks or so it turned she was after urgent money 
for her rent she was working in Manila.



She had already spent £2.000 I Had sent her for our honeymoon, and it was a 
struggle to draw enough out to replace it.



I gave her £1.200 for the cost of traveling and hotel for her medical and 
visa interview, I now know she lost that in an internet scam.



There was an option to register the marriage in the UK when we filled in her 
online visa application but but I decided to wait and do this in the UK when 
I knew she had the visa.

Am I correct there is no need for an annulment for me as the marriage is not 
legal here until I register it here?

 Thanks Mick Cant

On Mon,  8 Sep 2008 06:20:13 +0100, "Mick Cant" 
wrote:

> Am I correct there is no need for an annulment for me as the marriage is not 
> legal here until I register it here?

From your story I believe you are legally married regardless of whether you
register your marriage in the UK and also I see no grounds for a Decree of
Nullity.  Annulment is usually based on conditions that existed prior to or
at the time of the wedding and are reasons for why the wedding should never
have taken place and render the marriage invalid.

Tony

On 08/09/08 10:45, Anthony R. Gold wrote:
> On Mon,  8 Sep 2008 06:20:13 +0100, "Mick Cant" 
> wrote:
> 
>> Am I correct there is no need for an annulment for me as the marriage is not 
>> legal here until I register it here?
> 
> From your story I believe you are legally married regardless of whether you
> register your marriage in the UK and also I see no grounds for a Decree of
> Nullity.  Annulment is usually based on conditions that existed prior to or
> at the time of the wedding and are reasons for why the wedding should never
> have taken place and render the marriage invalid.

If the bride's intention was to defraud the groom, wouldn't that count
as a condition that existed prior to the wedding?

- Ian

-- 
Ian Chard, Senior Unix and Network Gorilla | E: ian.chard@sers.ox.ac.uk
Systems and Electronic Resources Service   | T:  80587 / (01865) 280587
Oxford University Library Services         | F:          (01865) 242287

> If the bride's intention was to defraud the groom, wouldn't that count
> as a condition that existed prior to the wedding?

The many "I'm pregnant we need to get married" marriages followed by 
"...but you weren't the father" divorces don't seem to get annulled.

On Sep 8, 11:45 am, "a...@b.invalid" <a...@b.invalid> wrote:
> > If the bride's intention was to defraud the groom, wouldn't that count
> > as a condition that existed prior to the wedding?
>
> The many "I'm pregnant we need to get married" marriages followed by
> "...but you weren't the father" divorces don't seem to get annulled.

It is a perfect reason for annullment.

s_pickle2001@yahoo.com;562500 Wrote: 
> On Sep 8, 11:45 am, "a...@b.invalid" a...@b.invalid wrote:--
> If the bride's intention was to defraud the groom, wouldn't that
> count
> as a condition that existed prior to the wedding?-
> 
> The many "I'm pregnant we need to get married" marriages followed by
> "...but you weren't the father" divorces don't seem to get annulled.-
> 
> It is a perfect reason for annullment.

Am I mistaken or does it seem that two unrelated threads have become
confusingly mixed up here? 

There seems to be the original topic of "Wedding in the Philippines"
and then mixed in the middle a different topic " Claiming financial
losses from Parents of a minor".  What has gone wrong?




-- 
Doug Giles